Latest Dec 27, 2024 Real CPTIA Exam Dumps Questions Valid CPTIA Dumps PDF
CREST CPTIA Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
NEW QUESTION # 32
A threat analyst obtains an intelligence related to a threat, where the data is sent in the form of a connection request from a remote host to the server. From this data, he obtains only the IP address of the source and destination but no contextual information. While processing this data, he obtains contextual information stating that multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by the server within a short time span, and as a result, the server is stressed and gradually its performance has reduced. He further performed analysis on the information based on the past and present experience and concludes the attack experienced by the client organization.
Which of the following attacks is performed on the client organization?
- A. Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack
- B. DHCP attacks
- C. MAC spoofing attack
- D. Bandwidth attack
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following encoding techniques replaces unusual ASCII characters with
"%" followed by the character's two-digit ASCII code expressed in hexadecimal?
- A. Base64 encoding
- B. Unicode encoding
- C. URL encoding
- D. HTML encoding
Answer: C
Explanation:
URL encoding, also known as percent-encoding, is a mechanism for encoding information in a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) under certain circumstances. This technique involves replacing unsafe ASCII characters with a "%" followed by two hexadecimal digits that represent the character's ASCII code. This is necessary for embedding characters that are not allowed in URLs directly, such as spaces and symbols, or characters that have special meanings within URLs, ensuring that the URL is correctly interpreted by web browsers and servers.
References:The concept of URL encoding is fundamental to web application security, a topic that is covered in the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council. Understanding encoding techniques is crucial for incident handlers dealing with web-based attacks and investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Smith employs various malware detection techniques to thoroughly examine the network and its systems for suspicious and malicious malware files. Among all techniques, which one involves analyzing the memory dumps or binary codes for the traces of malware?
- A. Dynamic analysis
- B. Static analysis
- C. Intrusion analysis
- D. Live system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static analysis involves examining the malware's memory dumps or binary codes without executing the code.
This technique is used to find traces of malware by analyzing the code to understand its purpose, functionality, and potential impact. Static analysis allows for the identification of malicious signatures, strings, or other indicators of compromise within the malware's code. This method is contrasted with dynamic analysis, which studies the malware's behavior during execution, live system analysis, which examines running systems, and intrusion analysis, which focuses on detecting and analyzing breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Tracy works as a CISO in a large multinational company. She consumes threat intelligence to understand the changing trends of cyber security. She requires intelligence to understand the current business trends and make appropriate decisions regarding new technologies, security budget, improvement of processes, and staff.
The intelligence helps her in minimizing business risks and protecting the new technology and business initiatives.
Identify the type of threat intelligence consumer is Tracy.
- A. Operational users
- B. Strategic users
- C. Tactical users
- D. Technical users
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tracy, as a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), requires intelligence that aids in understanding broader business and cybersecurity trends, making informed decisions regarding new technologies, security budgets, process improvements, and staffing. This need aligns with the role of a strategic user of threat intelligence. Strategic users leverage intelligence to guide long-term planning and decision-making, focusing on minimizing business risks and safeguarding against emerging threats to new technology and business initiatives. This type of intelligence is less about the technical specifics of individual threats and more about understanding the overall threat landscape, regulatory environment, and industry trends to inform high-level strategy and policy.References:
* "The Role of Strategic Intelligence in Cybersecurity," Journal of Cybersecurity Education, Research and Practice
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence and the Lessons from Law Enforcement," by Robert M. Lee and David Bianco, SANS Institute Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 36
For analyzing the system, the browser data can be used to access various credentials.
Which of the following tools is used to analyze the history data files in Microsoft Edge browser?
- A. MZHistoryView
- B. MZCacheView
- C. BrowsingHistoryView
- D. ChromeHistoryView
Answer: C
Explanation:
BrowsingHistoryView is a tool designed to collect and analyze history data from various web browsers, including Microsoft Edge. It allows users to view the browsing history stored by their browsers in one unified interface. This includes URLs visited, page titles, visit times, and the number of visits to each page. While ChromeHistoryView is specific to Google Chrome, BrowsingHistoryView supports multiple browsers, making it versatile for analyzing history data across different platforms. MZCacheView and MZHistoryView do not exist as tools recognized for this purpose in the context of Microsoft Edge or other browser history analysis.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides emphasize the importance of using digital forensic tools, such as BrowsingHistoryView, for analyzing web browser data during investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Eric works as a system administrator in ABC organization. He granted privileged users with unlimited permissions to access the systems. These privileged users can misuse their rights unintentionally or maliciously or attackers can trick them to perform malicious activities.
Which of the following guidelines helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?
- A. Do not control the access to administrators and privileged users
- B. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
- C. Do not use encryption methods to prevent administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information
- D. Do not enable the default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
Answer: D
Explanation:
The guideline that helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users is to ensure accountability by not enabling default administrative accounts. Instead, organizations should require administrators and privileged users to use individual accounts that can be audited and traced back to specific actions and users. This practice enhances security by ensuring that all actions taken on the system can be attributed to individual users, reducing the risk of misuse of privileges and making it easier to identify the source of malicious activities or policy violations. The other options listed either present insecure practices or misunderstandings of security protocols that would not help in eradicating insider attacks.References:The CREST materials discuss strategies for managing and mitigating the risks associated with privileged users, including the importance of accountability and the controlled use of administrative privileges to prevent insider threats.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Jason is setting up a computer forensics lab and must perform the following steps: 1. physical location and structural design considerations; 2. planning and budgeting; 3. work area considerations; 4. physical security recommendations; 5. forensic lab licensing; 6. human resource considerations. Arrange these steps in the order of execution.
- A. 3 .> 2 -> 1 -> 4-> 6-> 5
- B. 2->3->l ->4->6->5
- C. 5-> 2-> l-> 3-> 4-> 6
- D. 2 -> 1 -> 3 -> 6 -> 4 -> 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Setting up a computer forensics lab involves several critical steps that need to be executed in a logical and efficient order. The correct sequence starts with planning and budgeting (2), as it is essential to understand the scope, resources, and financial commitment required for the lab. The next step involves considering the physical location and structural design (1) to ensure the lab meets operational needs and security requirements. Work area considerations (3) follow, focusing on the layout and functionality of the workspace.
Human resource considerations (6) are crucial next, to ensure the lab is staffed with qualified personnel.
Physical security recommendations (4) are thenimplemented to protect the lab and its resources. Finally, forensic lab licensing (5) ensures the lab operates within legal and regulatory frameworks.
References:The CREST CPTIA course materials from EC-Council outline the foundational steps for setting up a computer forensics lab, stressing the importance of thorough planning and adherence to best practices in lab design and operation.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A network administrator working in an ABC organization collected log files generated by a traffic monitoring system, which may not seem to have useful information, but afterperforming proper analysis by him, the same information can be used to detect an attack in the network.
Which of the following categories of threat information has he collected?
- A. Advisories
- B. Strategic reports
- C. Low-level data
- D. Detection indicators
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network administrator collected log files generated by a traffic monitoring system, which falls under the category of low-level data. This type of data might not appear useful at first glance but can reveal significant insights about network activity and potential threats upon thorough analysis. Low-level data includes raw logs, packet captures, and other granular details that, when analyzed properly, can help detect anomalous behaviors or indicators of compromise within the network. This type of information is essential for detection and response efforts, allowing security teams to identify and mitigate threats in real-time.References:
* "Network Forensics: Tracking Hackers through Cyberspace," by Sherri Davidoff and Jonathan Ham, Prentice Hall
* "Real-Time Detection of Anomalous Activity in Dynamic, Heterogeneous Information Systems," IEEE Transactions on Information Forensics and Security
NEW QUESTION # 40
Jian is a member of the security team at Trinity, Inc. He was conducting a real-time assessment of system activities in order to acquire threat intelligence feeds. Heacquired feeds from sources like honeynets, P2P monitoring. infrastructure, and application logs.
Which of the following categories of threat intelligence feed was acquired by Jian?
- A. Internal intelligence feeds
- B. External intelligence feeds
- C. CSV data feeds
- D. Proactive surveillance feeds
Answer: A
Explanation:
Internal intelligence feeds are derived from data and information collected within an organization's own networks and systems. Jian's activities, such as real-time assessment of system activities and acquiring feeds from honeynets, P2P monitoring, infrastructure, and application logs, fall under the collection of internal intelligence feeds. These feeds are crucial for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities within the organization and form a fundamental part of a comprehensive threat intelligence program. They contrast with external intelligence feeds, which are sourced from outside the organization and include information on broader cyber threats, trends, and TTPs of threat actors.References:
* "Building an Intelligence-Led Security Program" by Allan Liska
* "Threat Intelligence: Collecting, Analysing, Evaluating" by M-K. Lee, L. Healey, and P. A. Porras
NEW QUESTION # 41
Bob, a threat analyst, works in an organization named TechTop. He was asked to collect intelligence to fulfil the needs and requirements of the Red Tam present within the organization.
Which of the following are the needs of a RedTeam?
- A. Intelligence that reveals risks related to various strategic business decisions
- B. Intelligence related to increased attacks targeting a particular software or operating system vulnerability
- C. Intelligence extracted latest attacks analysis on similar organizations, which includes details about latest threats and TTPs
- D. Intelligence on latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Red Teams are tasked with emulating potential adversaries to test and improve the security posture of an organization. They require intelligence on the latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their TTPs to simulate realistic attack scenarios and identify potential weaknesses in the organization's defenses. This information helps Red Teams in crafting their attack strategies to be as realistic and relevant as possible, thereby providing valuable insights into how actual attackers might exploit the organization's systems. This need contrasts with the requirements of other teams or roles within an organization, such as strategic decision-makers, who might be more interested in intelligence relatedto strategic risks or Blue Teams, which focus on defending against and responding to attacks.References:
* Red Team Field Manual (RTFM)
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework for understanding threat actor TTPs
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following tools helps incident responders effectively contain a potential cloud security incident and gather required forensic evidence?
- A. Alert Logic
- B. Cloud Passage Halo
- C. CloudPassage Quarantine
- D. Qualys Cloud Platform
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud Passage Halo is a security platform designed to provide comprehensive visibility and protection for cloud environments, making it an effective tool for incident responders dealing with potential cloud security incidents. It offers capabilities for detecting, responding to, and containing threats across public, private, and hybrid cloud environments. With features like automated security policies, compliance monitoring, and threat detection, Cloud Passage Halo enables incident responders to quickly contain incidents and gather the required forensic evidence to investigate the scope and impact of a breach or security issue. Tools like Alert Logic and Qualys Cloud Platform also provide security and compliance solutions for cloud environments, but Cloud Passage Halo is specifically recognized for its robust incident response and containment capabilities.
References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials and courses discuss various tools and technologies that support cloud security incident response, including the role of platforms like Cloud Passage Halo in effective incident management.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Clark, a professional hacker, exploited the web application of a target organization by tampering the form and parameter values. He successfully exploited the web application and gained access to the information assets of the organization.
Identify the vulnerability in the web application exploited by the attacker.
- A. Sensitive data exposure
- B. SQL injection
- C. Security misconfiguration
- D. Broken access control
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vulnerability exploited by Clark through tampering with form and parameter values to gain unauthorized access to information assets is indicative of Broken Access Control. Broken Access Control vulnerabilities occur when a web application does not properly enforce restrictions on what authenticated users are allowed to do. Attackers can exploit these vulnerabilities to access unauthorized functionality or data, such as accessing other users' accounts, viewing sensitive files, and modifying other users' data.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Andrews and Sons Corp. has decided to share threat information among sharing partners. Garry, a threat analyst, working in Andrews and Sons Corp., has asked to follow a trust model necessary to establish trust between sharing partners. In the trust model used by him, the first organization makes use of a body of evidence in a second organization, and the level of trust between two organizations depends on the degree and quality of evidence provided by the first organization.
Which of the following types of trust model is used by Garry to establish the trust?
- A. Mediated trust
- B. Direct historical trust
- C. Mandated trust
- D. Validated trust
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the trust model described, where trust between two organizations depends on the degree and quality of evidence provided by the first organization, the model in use is 'Validated Trust.' This model relies on the validation of evidence or credentials presented by one party to another to establish trust. The validation process assesses the credibility, reliability, and relevance of the information shared, forming the basis of the trust relationship between the sharing partners. This approach is common in threat intelligence sharing where the accuracy and reliability of shared information are critical.References:
* "Building a Cybersecurity Culture," ISACA
* "Trust Models in Information Security," Journal of Internet Services and Applications
NEW QUESTION # 45
In a team of threat analysts, two individuals were competing over projecting their own hypotheses on a given malware. However, to find logical proofs to confirm their hypotheses, the threat intelligence manager used a de-biasing strategy that involves learning strategic decision making in the circumstances comprising multistep interactions with numerous representatives, either having or without any perfect relevant information.
Which of the following de-biasing strategies the threat intelligence manager used to confirm their hypotheses?
- A. Decision theory
- B. Machine learning
- C. Game theory
- D. Cognitive psychology
Answer: C
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical framework designed for understanding strategic situations where individuals' or groups' outcomes depend on their choices and the choices of others. In the context of threat intelligence analysis, game theory can be used as a de-biasing strategy to help understand and predict the actions of adversaries and defenders. By considering the various strategies and potential outcomes in a 'game' where each player's payoff is affected by the actions of others, analysts can overcome their biases and evaluate hypotheses more objectively. This approach is particularly useful in scenarios involving multiple actors with different goals and incomplete information.References:
* "Game Theory and Its Applications in Cybersecurity" in the International Journal of Computer Science and Information Security
* "Applying Game Theory to Cybersecurity" by the SANS Institute
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following components refers to a node in the network that routes the traffic from a workstation to external command and control server and helps in identification of installed malware in the network?
- A. Repeater
- B. Gateway
- C. Hub
- D. Network interface card (NIC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A gateway in a network functions as a node that routes traffic between different networks, such as from a local network to the internet. In the context of cyber threats, a gateway can be utilized to monitor and control the data flow to and from the network, helping in the identification and analysis of malware communications, including traffic to external command and control (C2) servers. This makes it an essential component in detecting installed malware within a network by observing anomalies or unauthorized communications at the network's boundary. Unlike repeaters, hubs, or network interface cards (NICs) that primarily facilitate network connectivity without analyzing the traffic, gateways can enforce security policies and detect suspicious activities.References:
* "Network Security Basics," Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals
* "Malware Command and Control Channels: A Journey," SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 47
An XYZ organization hired Mr. Andrews, a threat analyst. In order to identify the threats and mitigate the effect of such threats, Mr. Andrews was asked to perform threat modeling. During the process of threat modeling, he collected important information about the treat actor and characterized the analytic behavior of the adversary that includes technological details, goals, and motives that can be useful in building a strong countermeasure.
What stage of the threat modeling is Mr. Andrews currently in?
- A. Threat ranking
- B. Threat determination and identification
- C. System modeling
- D. Threat profiling and attribution
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the threat modeling process, Mr. Andrews is in the stage of threat profiling and attribution, where he is collecting important information about the threat actor and characterizing the analytic behavior of the adversary. This stage involves understanding the technological details, goals, motives, and potential capabilities of the adversaries, which is essential for building effective countermeasures. Threat profiling and attribution help in creating a detailed picture of the adversary, contributing to a more focused and effective defense strategy.References:
* "The Art of Threat Profiling," by John Pirc, SANS Institute Reading Room
* "Threat Modeling: Designing for Security," by Adam Shostack
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which stage of the incident response and handling process involves auditing the system and network log files?
- A. Incident disclosure
- B. Containment
- C. Incident triage
- D. Incident eradication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Auditing the system and network log files is a crucial step in the incident triage phase of the incident response and handling process. During incident triage, incident handlers assess and prioritize incidents based on their severity, impact, and the urgency of the response required. Part of this assessment involves reviewing log files to understand the nature of the incident, its scope, and the systems or networks affected. This information helps in categorizing the incident and deciding on the appropriate response actions. Unlike containment, which aims to limit the damage, incident disclosure, which involves communicating about the incident, or incident eradication, which focuses on removing the threat, incident triage is about evaluating and prioritizing the incident based on detailed log analysis among other factors.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides emphasize the role of incident triage in the early stages of the incident response process, highlighting the importance of log file analysis in assessing and prioritizing incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 49
You are talking to a colleague who Is deciding what information they should include in their organization's logs to help with security auditing. Which of the following items should you tell them to NOT log?
- A. userid
- B. Source IP eddross
- C. Session ID
- D. Timestamp
Answer: A
Explanation:
Logging User IDs (D) can pose privacy concerns and may conflict with regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which emphasizes the protection of personal data and privacy. Therefore, while logging details such as Timestamps, Session IDs, and Source IP addresses are essential for security auditing to track when events occur, who is initiating sessions, and from where, care must be taken with User IDs. The handling of personally identifiable information (PII) must comply with privacy laws and organizational policies to safeguard individual privacy rights.
References:Security best practices and compliance frameworks discussed in the CREST guide incident handlers on what information should and should not be logged, emphasizing the need to balance security auditing requirements with privacy and regulatory obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 50
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