[Dec-2024] CPTIA Certification with Actual Questions from TorrentExam
Updated CPTIA Dumps PDF - CPTIA Real Valid Brain Dumps With 137 Questions!
NEW QUESTION # 71
Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate. What type of analysis are you performing?
- A. Dynamic
- B. Real-time
- C. Live
- D. Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
When Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate, the type of analysis you are performing is static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the contents of a drive, file, or binary without executing the system or the application. It's about analyzing the data at rest. This type of analysis is crucial for forensics investigations because it allows for the examination of files, directories, and system information without altering any state or data, thereby preserving the integrity of the evidence. Static analysis is contrasted with dynamic analysis, which involves analyzing a system in operation (real-time or live) or executing the application to observe its behavior.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides highlight the importance of static analysis in digital forensics, detailing methods for examining disk images, files, and other digital artifacts to gather evidence without compromising its integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 72
During the process of detecting and containing malicious emails, incident responders should examine the originating IP address of the emails.
The steps to examine the originating IP address are as follow:
1. Search for the IP in the WHOIS database
2. Open the email to trace and find its header
3. Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail
4. Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be performed by the incident responders to examine originating IP address of the emails.
- A. 1-->3-->2-->4
- B. 2-->3-->1-->4
- C. 2-->1-->4-->3
- D. 4-->1-->2-->3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct sequence to examine the originating IP address of emails involves first accessing the email's header to locate the IP address, then using external resources to investigate that address further. The steps are as follows:
* Step 2:Open the email to trace and find its header. This is the initial step because the header contains valuable information about the email's journey across the internet, including the originating IP address.
* Step 3:Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail. This detail is crucial for the next steps in the investigation.
* Step 1:Search for the IP in the WHOIS database. This database can provide information about the owner of the IP address, including the ISP and sometimes the geographic location.
* Step 4:Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database. With the IP address information obtained from the WHOIS search, the geographic location or the originating country of the email can often be deduced, contributing to the analysis of the email's legitimacy.
References:The process of analyzing email headers to trace originating IP addresses and further investigating those addresses is a common practice in incident response, covered under the digital forensics and email analysis topics within the CREST CPTIA curriculum by EC-Council.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Alison, an analyst in an XYZ organization, wants to retrieve information about a company's website from the time of its inception as well as the removed information from the target website.
What should Alison do to get the information he needs.
- A. Alison should use SmartWhois to extract the required website information.
- B. Alison should use https://archive.org to extract the required website information.
- C. Alison should run the Web Data Extractor tool to extract the required website information.
- D. Alison should recover cached pages of the website from the Google search engine cache to extract the required website information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To retrieve historical information about a company's website, including content that may have been removed or altered, Alison should use the Internet Archive's Wayback Machine, accessible athttps://archive.org. The Wayback Machine is a digital archive of the World Wide Web and other information on the Internet, providing free access to snapshots of websites at various points in time. This tool is invaluable for researchers and analysts looking to understand the evolution of a website or recover lost information.References:
* "Using the Wayback Machine for Cybersecurity Research," Internet Archive Blogs
* "Digital Forensics with the Archive's Wayback Machine," by Jeff Kaplan, Internet Archive
NEW QUESTION # 74
Tibson works as an incident responder for MNC based in Singapore. He is investigating a web application security incident recently faced by the company. The attack is performed on a MS SQL Server hosted by the company. In the detection and analysis phase, he used regular expressions to analyze and detect SQL meta-characters that led to SQL injection attack.
Identify the regular expression used by Tibson to detect SQL injection attack on MS SQL Server.
- A. ((\%3C)|<)((\%2F)|\/)*(script)((\%3E)|>)
- B. ((\.\.\\)|(\.\.\/))
- C. ((\.|%2E)(\.|%2E)(\/|%2F|\\|%5C))
- D. /exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ix
Answer: D
Explanation:
The regular expression/exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ixis designed to match patterns that resemble SQL injection attempts, specifically targeting MS SQL Server. This expression looks for the use of theexeccommand followed by one or more spaces or plus signs, and then patterns that start withsporxp, which are prefixes commonly used in SQL Server stored procedures and extended stored procedures. These are often targeted in SQL injection attacks to execute malicious SQL statements. The regular expression provided is a tool used by incident responders like Tibson to identify and analyze potential SQL injection attempts by looking for suspicious patterns in SQL queries.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following has been used to evade IDS and IPS?
- A. TNP
- B. HTTP
- C. Fragmentation
- D. SNMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fragmentation is a technique used by attackers to evade detection by Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). By breaking down packets into smaller fragments, attackers can make it more difficult for these security systems to detect malicious payloads or signature-based patterns associated with known attacks. This method exploits the fact that some IDS/IPS solutions may not properly reassemble packet fragments for analysis, thereby allowing malicious fragments to pass through undetected.
References:In its coverage of network security mechanisms and evasion techniques, the CREST details how attackers exploit vulnerabilities in the implementation of IDS and IPS systems, including the use of packet fragmentation.
NEW QUESTION # 76
An organization named Sam Morison Inc. decided to use cloud-based services to reduce the cost of maintenance. The organization identified various risks and threats associated with cloud service adoption and migrating business-critical data to thirdparty systems. Hence, the organization decided to deploy cloud-based security tools to prevent upcoming threats.
Which of the following tools help the organization to secure the cloud resources and services?
- A. Burp Suite
- B. Alert Logic
- C. Wireshark
- D. Nmap
Answer: B
Explanation:
Alert Logic is a cloud-based security tool that provides Security-as-a-Service solutions including threat management, vulnerability assessment, and improved security outcomes. It is designed specifically to secure cloud resources and services, making it an ideal choice for organizations like Sam Morison Inc. that are moving their operations to the cloud and are concerned about the security of their data. Tools like Nmap, Burp Suite, and Wireshark, while valuable in certain contexts, do not offer the same cloud-focused security capabilities as Alert Logic.
NEW QUESTION # 77
John, a professional hacker, is trying to perform APT attack on the target organization network. He gains access to a single system of a target organization and tries to obtain administrative login credentials to gain further access to the systems in the network using various techniques.
What phase of the advanced persistent threat lifecycle is John currently in?
- A. Search and exfiltration
- B. Initial intrusion
- C. Expansion
- D. Persistence
Answer: C
Explanation:
The phase described where John, after gaining initial access, is attempting to obtain administrative credentials to further access systems within the network, is known as the 'Expansion' phase of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) lifecycle. This phase involves the attacker expanding their foothold within the target's environment, often by escalating privileges, compromising additional systems, and moving laterally through the network. The goal is to increase control over the network and maintain persistence for ongoing access.
This phase follows the initial intrusion and sets the stage for establishing long-term presence and eventual data exfiltration or other malicious objectives.References:
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework, specifically the tactics related to Credential Access and Lateral Movement
* "APT Lifecycle: Detecting the Undetected," a whitepaper by CyberArk
NEW QUESTION # 78
Ren is assigned to handle a security incident of an organization. He is tasked with forensics investigation to find the evidence needed by the management. Which of the following steps falls under the investigation phase of the computer forensics investigation process?
- A. Setup a computer forensics lab
- B. Secure the evidence
- C. Risk assessment
- D. Evidence assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Evidence assessment is a critical step in the investigation phase of the computer forensics process. This step involves evaluating the evidence collected to determine its relevance and significance to the case at hand. It includes analyzing the secured data to identify what information can be used as evidence, its integrity, and how it can be related to the security incident. This phase is pivotal as it helps in building a coherent understanding of the incident and in establishing facts that can be presented in management reports or legal proceedings.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) by EC-Council includes a comprehensive discussion on the computer forensics investigation process, detailing steps from securing evidence to analyzing and assessing it within the context of an investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Jian is a member of the security team at Trinity, Inc. He was conducting a real-time assessment of system activities in order to acquire threat intelligence feeds. Heacquired feeds from sources like honeynets, P2P monitoring. infrastructure, and application logs.
Which of the following categories of threat intelligence feed was acquired by Jian?
- A. Proactive surveillance feeds
- B. CSV data feeds
- C. Internal intelligence feeds
- D. External intelligence feeds
Answer: C
Explanation:
Internal intelligence feeds are derived from data and information collected within an organization's own networks and systems. Jian's activities, such as real-time assessment of system activities and acquiring feeds from honeynets, P2P monitoring, infrastructure, and application logs, fall under the collection of internal intelligence feeds. These feeds are crucial for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities within the organization and form a fundamental part of a comprehensive threat intelligence program. They contrast with external intelligence feeds, which are sourced from outside the organization and include information on broader cyber threats, trends, and TTPs of threat actors.References:
* "Building an Intelligence-Led Security Program" by Allan Liska
* "Threat Intelligence: Collecting, Analysing, Evaluating" by M-K. Lee, L. Healey, and P. A. Porras
NEW QUESTION # 80
An attack on a network is BEST blocked using which of the following?
- A. Load balancer
- B. IPS device inline
- C. HIPS
- D. Web proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) device placed inline is best suited to block attacks on a network actively. Being inline allows the IPS to analyze and take action on the traffic as it passes through the device, effectively preventing malicious traffic from reaching its target. The IPS can detect and block a wide range of attacks in real-time by using various detection methods, such as signature-based detection, anomaly detection, and policy-based detection. Unlike Host-based Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS), web proxies, or load balancers, an inline IPS is specifically designed to inspect and act on incoming and outgoing network traffic to prevent attacks before they reach network devices or applications.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials discuss network security controls and emphasize the role of intrusion prevention systems in protecting networks against threats.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Michael, a threat analyst, works in an organization named TechTop, was asked to conduct a cyber-threat intelligence analysis. After obtaining information regarding threats, he has started analyzing the information and understanding the nature of the threats.
What stage of the cyber-threat intelligence is Michael currently in?
- A. Unknown unknowns
- B. Known knowns
- C. Known unknowns
- D. Unknowns unknown
Answer: C
Explanation:
The "known unknowns" stage in cyber-threat intelligence refers to the phase where an analyst has identified threats but the specific details, implications, or full nature of these threats are not yet fully understood.
Michael, in this scenario, has obtained information on threats and is in the process of analyzing this information to understand the nature of the threats better. This stage involves analyzing the known data to uncover additional insights and fill in the gaps in understanding, thereby transitioning the "unknowns" into
"knowns." This phase is critical in threat intelligence as it helps in developing actionable intelligence by deepening the understanding of the threats faced.References:
* "Intelligence Analysis: A Target-Centric Approach," by Robert M. Clark
* "Structured Analytic Techniques for Intelligence Analysis," by Richards J. Heuer Jr. and Randolph H.
Pherson
NEW QUESTION # 82
A threat analyst obtains an intelligence related to a threat, where the data is sent in the form of a connection request from a remote host to the server. From this data, he obtains only the IP address of the source and destination but no contextual information. While processing this data, he obtains contextual information stating that multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by the server within a short time span, and as a result, the server is stressed and gradually its performance has reduced. He further performed analysis on the information based on the past and present experience and concludes the attack experienced by the client organization.
Which of the following attacks is performed on the client organization?
- A. Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack
- B. MAC spoofing attack
- C. DHCP attacks
- D. Bandwidth attack
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following types of digital evidence is temporarily stored in a digital device that requires constant power supply and is deleted if the power supply is interrupted?
- A. Swap file
- B. Event logs
- C. Slack space
- D. Process memory
Answer: D
Explanation:
Process memory (RAM) is a type of digital evidence that is temporarily stored and requires a constant power supply to retain information. If the power supply is interrupted, the information stored in process memory is lost. This type of evidence can include data about running programs, user actions, system events, and more, making it crucial for forensic analysis, especially in identifying actions taken by both users and malware.
Collecting data from process memory helps incident responders understand the state of the system at the time of an incident and can reveal valuable information that is not persisted elsewhere on the device.
References:Incident handling and response training, such as the CREST CPTIA program, emphasize the importance of collecting and analyzing volatile data, including process memory, to effectively investigate and respond to cybersecurity incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Richard is analyzing a corporate network. After an alert in the network's IPS. he identified that all the servers are sending huge amounts of traffic to the website abc.xyz. What type of information security attack vectors have affected the network?
- A. Advance persistent three Is
- B. Botnet
- C. Ransomware
- D. IOT threats
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a corporate network's servers are sending huge amounts of traffic to a specific website, as detected by the network's Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), this behavior is indicative of a Botnet attack. A Botnet is a network of compromised computers, often referred to as "bots," that are controlled remotely by an attacker, typically without the knowledge of the owners of the computers. The attacker can command these bots to execute distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, send spam, or conduct other malicious activities. In this scenario, the servers behaving as bots and targeting a website with large volumes of traffic suggests that they have been co-opted into a Botnet to potentially perform a DDoS attack on the website abc.xyz.References:
Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides discuss various types of cyber threats and attack vectors, including Botnets and their role in distributed cyber attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following risk management processes identifies the risks, estimates the impact, and determines sources to recommend proper mitigation measures?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Risk mitigation
- C. Risk assumption
- D. Risk avoidance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk assessment is the risk management process that involves identifying risks, estimating their impact on the organization, and determining the sources of those risks to recommend appropriate mitigation measures. The goal of a risk assessment is to understand the nature of potential threats, vulnerabilities, and the consequences of those risks materializing, allowing an organization to make informed decisions about how to address them effectively. Risk assumption involves accepting the potential impact of a risk, risk mitigation focuses on reducing the likelihood or impact of risks, and risk avoidance involves taking actions to avoid the risk entirely.
References:The CREST CPTIA course materials include discussions on risk management processes, outlining the importance of risk assessment in identifying and preparing for potential security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following encoding techniques replaces unusual ASCII characters with
"%" followed by the character's two-digit ASCII code expressed in hexadecimal?
- A. HTML encoding
- B. URL encoding
- C. Unicode encoding
- D. Base64 encoding
Answer: B
Explanation:
URL encoding, also known as percent-encoding, is a mechanism for encoding information in a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) under certain circumstances. This technique involves replacing unsafe ASCII characters with a "%" followed by two hexadecimal digits that represent the character's ASCII code. This is necessary for embedding characters that are not allowed in URLs directly, such as spaces and symbols, or characters that have special meanings within URLs, ensuring that the URL is correctly interpreted by web browsers and servers.
References:The concept of URL encoding is fundamental to web application security, a topic that is covered in the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council. Understanding encoding techniques is crucial for incident handlers dealing with web-based attacks and investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is an attack that attempts to prevent the use of systems, networks, or applications by the intended users?
- A. Malicious code or insider threat attack
- B. Unauthorized access
- C. Fraud and theft
- D. Denial of service (DoS) attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack aims to make a computer resource, network, or application unavailable to its intended users, thereby preventing legitimate users from using the service. This is achieved by overwhelming the target with a flood of internet traffic or sending information that triggers a crash. In contrast, fraud and theft involve the unauthorized acquisition of data or assets, unauthorized access refers to gaining entry into systems without permission, and malicious code or insider threat attacks relate to software designed to cause harm or unauthorized actions by trusted users within the organization. The specific intent of a DoS attack is to disrupt service, making it a distinct category focused on denial of availability.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials discuss various types of cybersecurity threats, including DoS attacks, outlining their methods, objectives, and impacts on targeted systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Sam received an alert through an email monitoring tool indicating that their company was targeted by a phishing attack. After analyzing the incident, Sam identified that most of the targets of the attack are high- profile executives of the company. What type of phishing attack is this?
- A. Puddle phishing
- B. Pharming
- C. Whaling
- D. Spear phishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Whaling is a specific type of phishing attack that targets high-profile executives or individuals within an organization, often with the intent to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts for financial fraud. The term "whaling" is used because it targets the "big fish" of an organization. Given that Sam identified the targets of the attack as high-profile executives, the described scenario is indicative of a whaling attack.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum includes a section on different types of phishing attacks, including whaling, emphasizing the strategies attackers use to target individuals based on their roles within an organization.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Alex is an incident handler for Tech-o-Tech Inc. and is tasked to identify any possible insider threats within his organization. Which of the following insider threat detection techniques can be used by Alex to detect insider threats based on the behavior of a suspicious employee, both individually and in a group?
- A. Physical detection
- B. Mole detection
- C. behaviorial analysis
- D. Profiling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Behavioral analysis is a technique used to detect insider threats by analyzing the behavior of employees, both individually and in group settings, to identify any actions that deviate from the norm. This method relies on monitoring and analyzing data related to user activities, access patterns, and other behaviors that could indicate malicious intent or a potential security risk from within the organization. Behavioral analysis can detect unusual access to sensitive data, abnormal data transfer activities, and other indicators of insider threats. This approach is proactive and can help in identifying potential insider threats before they result in significant harm to the organization.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover various insider threat detection techniques, including the importance of behavioral analysis as a key method for identifying potential security risks posed by insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Robert is an incident handler working for Xsecurity Inc. One day, his organization faced a massive cyberattack and all the websites related to the organization went offline. Robert was on duty during the incident and he was responsible to handle the incident and maintain business continuity. He immediately restored the web application service with the help of the existing backups.
According to the scenario, which of the following stages of incident handling and response (IH&R) process does Robert performed?
- A. Notification
- B. Recovery
- C. Evidence gathering and forensics analysis
- D. Eradication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Restoring web application services with the help of existing backups, as performed by Robert, falls under the Recovery stage of the Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process. The Recovery stage involves actions taken to return the organization to normal operations after an incident, which includes restoring systems to their operational state using backups, patching vulnerabilities, and ensuring that all systems are clean and secure before being brought back online. This step is crucial for resuming business operations and mitigating the impact of the incident.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Tim is working as an analyst in an ABC organization. His organization had been facing many challenges in converting the raw threat intelligence data into meaningful contextual information. After inspection, he found that it was due to noise obtained from misrepresentation of data from huge data collections. Hence, it is important to clean the data before performing data analysis using techniques such as data reduction. He needs to choose an appropriate threat intelligence framework that automatically performs data collection, filtering, and analysis for his organization.
Which of the following threat intelligence frameworks should he choose to perform such task?
- A. Threat grid
- B. HighCharts
- C. TC complete
- D. SIGVERIF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Threat Grid is a threat intelligence and analysis platform that offers advanced capabilities for automatic data collection, filtering, and analysis. It is designed to help organizations convert raw threat data into meaningful, actionable intelligence. By employing advanced analytics and machine learning, Threat Grid can reduce noise from large data sets, helping to eliminate misrepresentations and enhance the quality of the threat intelligence.
This makes it an ideal choice for Tim, who is looking to address the challenges of converting raw data into contextual information and managing the noise from massive data collections.References:
* "Cisco Threat Grid: Unify Your Threat Defense," Cisco
* "Integrating and Automating Threat Intelligence," by Threat Grid
NEW QUESTION # 92
Employee monitoring tools are mostly used by employers to find which of the following?
- A. Lost registry keys
- B. Conspiracies
- C. Malicious insider threats
- D. Stolen credentials
Answer: C
Explanation:
Employee monitoring tools are primarily used by employers to detect and prevent malicious insider threats.
These tools can track activities such as data access, data exfiltration attempts, unauthorized actions, and other behaviors that could indicate malicious intent or pose a risk to the organization's security. While such tools may also incidentally uncover issues like lost registry keys, conspiracies, or stolen credentials, their main purpose is to safeguard against insiders who might misuse their access to harm the organization, steal data, sabotage systems, or engage in espionage.References:CREST CPTIA study materials cover various security measures and tools that organizations can use to protect against insider threats, emphasizing the role of monitoring in detecting and responding to malicious activities by insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Elizabeth, who works for OBC organization as an incident responder, is assessing the risks to the organizational security. As part of the assessment process, she is calculating the probability of a threat source exploiting an existing system vulnerability. Which of the following risk assessment steps is Elizabeth currently in?
- A. Impact analysis
- B. System characterization
- C. Vulnerability identification
- D. Likelihood analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the risk assessment process, calculating the probability that a threat source will exploit an existing system vulnerability is known as likelihood analysis. This step involves evaluating how probable it is that the organization's vulnerabilities can be exploited by potential threats, considering various factors such as the nature of the vulnerability, the presence and capability of threat actors, and the effectiveness of current controls. Elizabeth's task of assessing the probability of exploitation is crucial for understanding the risk level associated with different vulnerabilities and for prioritizing risk mitigation efforts based on the likelihood of occurrence.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program by EC-Council includes detailed discussions on risk assessment methodologies, where likelihood analysis is highlighted as a key component in evaluating risks to organizational security.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following tools helps incident responders effectively contain a potential cloud security incident and gather required forensic evidence?
- A. Qualys Cloud Platform
- B. Alert Logic
- C. Cloud Passage Halo
- D. CloudPassage Quarantine
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud Passage Halo is a security platform designed to provide comprehensive visibility and protection for cloud environments, making it an effective tool for incident responders dealing with potential cloud security incidents. It offers capabilities for detecting, responding to, and containing threats across public, private, and hybrid cloud environments. With features like automated security policies, compliance monitoring, and threat detection, Cloud Passage Halo enables incident responders to quickly contain incidents and gather the required forensic evidence to investigate the scope and impact of a breach or security issue. Tools like Alert Logic and Qualys Cloud Platform also provide security and compliance solutions for cloud environments, but Cloud Passage Halo is specifically recognized for its robust incident response and containment capabilities.
References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials and courses discuss various tools and technologies that support cloud security incident response, including the role of platforms like Cloud Passage Halo in effective incident management.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Karry, a threat analyst at an XYZ organization, is performing threat intelligence analysis. During the data collection phase, he used a data collection method that involves no participants and is purely based on analysis and observation of activities and processes going on within the local boundaries of the organization.
Identify the type data collection method used by the Karry.
- A. Active data collection
- B. Raw data collection
- C. Exploited data collection
- D. Passive data collection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Karry's method of collecting data, which involves no active engagement with participants and is purely based on analysis and observation of activities within the organization, is known as passive data collection. This method is characterized by the non-intrusive monitoring of data and events, allowing analysts to gather intelligence without alerting potential adversaries or disrupting ongoing processes. Passive data collection is essential for maintaining operational security and obtaining an unaltered view of system and network activities.References:
* "Passive Data Collection in Cybersecurity," by Cybersecurity Guide
* "Understanding Passive and Active Data Collection for Cyber Threat Intelligence," by ThreatConnect
NEW QUESTION # 96
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