Latest Mar 27, 2026 N10-009 Brain Dump: A Study Guide with Tips & Tricks for passing Exam
N10-009 Question Bank: Free PDF Download Recently Updated Questions
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 233
A technician needs to quickly set up a network with five wireless devices. Which of the following network types should the technician configure to accomplish this task?
- A. Mesh
- B. Ad hoc
- C. Spine and leaf
- D. Point to point
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is Ad hoc because it allows wireless devices to communicate directly with one another without requiring a centralized access point or additional infrastructure. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under wireless networking concepts, an ad hoc network (also known as an Independent Basic Service Set, or IBSS) enables peer-to-peer wireless communication.
This type of network is ideal for temporary or quick setups where only a small number of devices need to connect. In an ad hoc configuration, each device connects directly to others, making it simple and fast to deploy without requiring switches, routers, or wireless access points.
Spine and leaf (Option B) is a data center architecture designed for high scalability and redundancy, not small wireless setups. Point-to-point (Option C) refers to a direct connection between two devices only, which would not support five devices efficiently. Mesh (Option D) allows multiple nodes to interconnect and provide redundancy, but it is more complex and typically requires compatible infrastructure devices.
Therefore, for a quick setup with five wireless devices, an ad hoc network is the most appropriate choice.
NEW QUESTION # 234
Which of the following disaster recovery concepts is calculated by dividing the total hours of operation by the total number of units?
- A. RPO
- B. MTTR
- C. RTO
- D. MTBF
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:
* Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data recovery in the event of a disaster.
* Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):
* MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during operation. It is calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.
* Formula: MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{Total Operational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}} MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational Time
* This metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and components.
* Example Calculation:
* If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is:
MTBF=1000 hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{ hours} MTBF=21000 hours=500 hours
* Explanation of the Options:
* A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a system after a failure.
* B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The correct answer, representing the average time between failures.
* C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.
* D. RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster.
* Conclusion:
* MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations plan maintenance and predict system performance.
NEW QUESTION # 235
You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:
1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments
2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.
3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer screen AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 236
A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP 10.0.0.81/28. Which of the following is the best explanation?
- A. Thesubnet is in a private address space.
- B. Therouter interface isa broadcast address.
- C. Theweb server Is In adifferent subnet.
- D. TheIP address spaceis a class A network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:
The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14 usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).
Calculating the Subnet Range:
Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:
Network address: 10.0.0.80
Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94
Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95
Router Interface Configuration:
Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.0.0.80/28.
Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues as it is not a valid host address.
Comparison with Other Options:
The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet range (10.0.0.80
/28).
The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.
The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918) does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration.
Resolution:
Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as 10.0.0.94.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP address configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 237
You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:
1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments
2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.
3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer screen AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following is created to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage in a building?
- A. Heat map
- B. Layer 3 network diagram
- C. Service-level agreement
- D. Logical diagram
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Definition of Heat Maps:
* A heat map is a graphical representation of data where individual values are represented by colors. In the context of wireless networking, a heat map shows the wireless signal strength in different areas of a building.
* Purpose of a Heat Map:
* Heat maps are used to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage, identify dead zones, and optimize the placement of access points (APs) to ensure adequate coverage and performance.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Logical Diagram: Represents the logical connections and relationships within the network.
* Layer 3 Network Diagram: Focuses on the routing and IP addressing within the network.
* Service-Level Agreement (SLA): A contract that specifies the expected service levels between a service provider and a customer.
* Creation and Use:
* Heat maps are created using specialized software or tools that measure wireless signal strength throughout the building. The data collected is then used to generate a visual map, guiding network administrators in optimizing wireless coverage.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous documentation.
Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3:
192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
NEW QUESTION # 240
A network administrator is conducting an assessment and finds network devices that do not meet standards. Which of the following configurations is considered a set of rules that devices should adhere to?
- A. Production
- B. Golden
- C. Candidate
- D. Backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is golden configuration. This is a Reference: standard or baseline that defines the approved settings and rules devices should follow. Any deviation from the golden configuration indicates drift or misconfiguration that must be remediated.
A . Production refers to the live environment but doesn't define a standard.
B . Backup configurations are stored copies, not the standard rules.
C . Candidate configuration is a proposed change being tested, not the final baseline.
By enforcing golden configurations, administrators ensure compliance, maintain security standards, and improve consistency across the enterprise.
NEW QUESTION # 241
Which of the following would describe a data recovery goal?
- A. BCP
- B. MTTR
- C. RPO
- D. MTBF
Answer: C
Explanation:
RPO (Recovery Point Objective) describes a data recovery goal by defining the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. For example, an RPO of 4 hours means the organization must be able to restore data to a point no more than four hours before the outage-so backups, replication, or snapshots must occur frequently enough to meet that target. In Network+ (N10-009) operations objectives, disaster recovery and business continuity concepts include understanding recovery metrics and how they influence backup strategies, replication design, and service resilience planning. RPO specifically answers: "How much data can we afford to lose?" By contrast, MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is a reliability metric describing how often failures occur. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair/Recover) measures how long it takes to restore a system after failure, which is more aligned with service restoration time rather than data loss. BCP (Business Continuity Plan) is the overall plan/process for keeping critical business functions running during disruptions; it is not a single data recovery metric. Therefore, RPO is the correct term for a data recovery goal.
NEW QUESTION # 242
Anetwork technicianis troubleshooting afaulty NICandtests the theory. Which of the following should the techniciando next?
- A. Develop a theory.
- B. Establish a plan of action.
- C. Implement the solution.
- D. Document the findings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Once thetheory has been tested and confirmed, the next step is toimplement the solutionbased on the CompTIA troubleshooting model.
CompTIA Troubleshooting Model:
* Identify the problem.
* Establish a theory of probable cause.
* Test the theory.
* Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.#(Correct step)
* Verify full system functionality.
* Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. Develop a theory- The theory hasalready been developed and tested.
* B. Establish a plan of action- This happensbefore implementation, but since the issue isconfirmed, it's time to act.
* C. Implement the solution-Correct answer.The problem is confirmed, so the fix should be applied.
* D. Document the findings- Documentation is thefinal step, not the next one.
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is an XML-based security concept that works by passing sensitve information about users, such as log-in information and attributes, to providers.
- A. RADIUS
- B. IAM
- C. MFA
- D. SAML
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is an XML-based standard used for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, particularly between an identity provider (IdP) and a service provider (SP). SAML is commonly used in Single Sign-On (SSO) solutions to pass sensitive user information, such as login credentials and attributes, securely between the identity provider and the service provider.
SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Facilitates web-based authentication and authorization, allowing users to access multiple services with a single set of credentials.
XML-based: Uses XML to encode the authentication and authorization data, ensuring secure transmission of user information.
Identity Federation: Enables secure sharing of identity information across different security domains, making it ideal for enterprise SSO solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 244
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company purchases a new phone that will be used while traveling to different countries. The CEO needs to be able to place outgoing calls and receive incoming calls on the phone using a SIM card. Which of the following cellular technologies does the CEO's phone need?
- A. SLA
- B. WDMA
- C. GSM
- D. CDMA
Answer: C
Explanation:
GSM (Global System for Mobile communications) is the international standard that uses SIM cards to authenticate and connect phones to the cellular network. GSM allows users to place and receive calls while traveling globally, provided they have a SIM card. CDMA, on the other hand, does not use SIM cards in the same way and is primarily used in the United States. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Fundamentals)
NEW QUESTION # 245
A network architect of a stock exchange broker is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) high-availability plan. Which of the following approaches would be the best fit?
- A. Full mesh
- B. Warm site
- C. In-band
- D. Active-active
Answer: D
Explanation:
In financial institutions such as stock exchanges, downtime or latency can have severe consequences. Active-active high availability ensures multiple sites/systems are running simultaneously, distributing the load and providing immediate failover with minimal or no interruption. This is the best approach for environments that require continuous uptime and resiliency.
A . Warm site: Useful for disaster recovery, but not immediate; systems must be partially configured and brought online.
C . Full mesh: Refers to topology interconnections, not DR/HA design.
D . In-band: Relates to management methods, not HA/DR strategies.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Infrastructure - High availability, redundancy strategies, active-active vs. active-passive design.
NEW QUESTION # 246
A network administrator recently updated configurations on a Layer 3 switch. Following the updates, users report being unable to reach a specific file server. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Switching loop
- B. Incorrect ACLs
- C. Wrong default route
- D. Duplicate IP addresses
Answer: B
Explanation:
*Since this issue occurred after a configuration change on a Layer 3 switch, the most likely cause is misconfigured ACLs (Access Control Lists).
*ACLs control which traffic is allowed or denied, so an incorrect ACL may be blocking access to the file server.
*Why not the other options?
*Switching loop (B): A switching loop occurs at Layer 2 (not Layer 3) and causes network-wide broadcast storms, not just loss of access to a file server.
*Duplicate IP addresses (C): This would cause connectivity issues for the devices with the conflict, but not necessarily prevent all users from accessing the file server.
*Wrong default route (D): The default route is used for traffic leaving the local network. If users are unable to access an internal file server, this is unlikely to be the issue.
NEW QUESTION # 247
A network administrator is configuring a new switch and wants to ensure that only assigned devices can connect to the switch. Which of the following should the administrator do?
- A. Implement a captive portal.
- B. Enable port security.
- C. Disable unnecessary services.
- D. Configure ACLs.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 248
An administrator is setting up an SNMP server for use in the enterprise network and needs to create device IDs within a MIB. Which of the following describes the function of a MIB?
- A. DHCP relay device
- B. Definition file for event translation
- C. Policy enforcement point
- D. Network access controller
Answer: B
Explanation:
* MIB (Management Information Base): A MIB is a database used for managing the entities in a communication network. The MIB is used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to translate events into a readable format, enabling network administrators to manage and monitor network devices effectively.
* Function of MIB: MIBs contain definitions and information about all objects that can be managed on a network using SNMP. These objects are defined using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers (OIDs).
CompTIA Network+ materials discussing SNMP and MIB functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 249
A company ' s Chief Information Security Officer requires that servers and firewalls have accurate time stamps when creating log files so that security analysts can correlate events during incident investigations.
Which of the following should be implemented?
- A. NTP
- B. SMTP
- C. Syslog server
- D. SNMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct solution is NTP (Network Time Protocol). Accurate timestamps across servers, firewalls, and network devices are critical for correlating logs during incident response. NTP synchronizes device clocks to a trusted time source, ensuring consistency across the network.
A). Syslog centralizes logs but does not synchronize time.
B). SMTP is email transfer, unrelated to time.
D). SNMP monitors devices but does not correct time discrepancies.
By implementing NTP, analysts can ensure that logs from different devices are time-aligned, which is essential for reconstructing attack timelines and detecting anomalies.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Operations - Time synchronization, NTP, log correlation.
NEW QUESTION # 250
Which of the following ports is used for secure email?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption.
Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns.
Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured.
Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be secured with STARTTLS or SSL
/TLS.
Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.
Network References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate ports.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 251
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network.
The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by Clicking on each device and cable.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
Cable Test Results:
Cable 1:
Cable 2:
Cable 3:
Cable 4:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps:
* Click on each device and cable to open its information window.
* Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or
* performance.
* Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
* Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1:
* The component with a problem is PC1.
* The problem is Incorrect IP address.
* The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10.
You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components.
To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps:
* Click on the device to open its terminal window.
* Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
* Enter the command ping <IP address> to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
* Enter the command tracert <IP address> to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets with increasing TTL values.
Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch
1.
Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1:
* Click on PC1 to open its terminal window.
* Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1.
* Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets.
* Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them.
You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1.
NEW QUESTION # 252
A network requirement calls for the network traffic of a specific department within a campus network to be monitored. The network has users from each department located in multiple buildings. Which of the following should be configured to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
- A. 802.1Q
- B. Port mirroring
- C. Flow control
- D. LACP
- E. MDIX
- F. Jumbo frames
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
802.1Q is a standard for VLAN tagging, which allows the network administrator to segment the network traffic of different departments into separate VLANs. This makes it easier to monitor and manage the traffic of each department.
Port mirroring is a feature that allows the network administrator to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for analysis. By configuring port mirroring on the ports connected to the specific department, the network administrator can monitor the traffic of that department in real-time.
NEW QUESTION # 253
A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
- A. Ad hoc
- B. Mesh
- C. Infrastructure
- D. Point-to-point
Answer: B
Explanation:
A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 254
A network technician implements a switch with multiple VLANs. Which of the following items should the technician configure to ensure that clients can communicate with clients in other VLANs?
- A. VPC
- B. ACL
- C. VXLAN
- D. SVI
Answer: D
Explanation:
To enable communication between VLANs, the technician must configure inter-VLAN routing. On a Layer
3 switch, this is commonly done by creating an SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) for each VLAN. An SVI provides a virtual Layer 3 interface with an IP address that acts as the default gateway for hosts in that VLAN. Once SVIs exist and routing is enabled, the switch can route traffic between VLAN subnets internally, allowing clients in different VLANs to communicate (subject to any security controls). This aligns with Network+ (N10-009) infrastructure objectives covering VLANs, Layer 2/Layer 3 switching, and the requirement for routing to cross broadcast domains.
ACLs can permit or deny inter-VLAN traffic, but they do not create the routing function by themselves.
VXLAN is an overlay tunneling technology used mainly in data centers to extend Layer 2 networks over Layer 3 fabrics, not the standard solution for basic VLAN-to-VLAN connectivity on a switch. VPC is not the required configuration element for inter-VLAN routing in this context. Therefore, configuring SVIs is the correct and most direct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 255
A client wants to increase overall security after a recent breach. Which of the following would be best to implement? (Select two.)
- A. Dynamic inventeries
- B. Subnet range limits
- C. Zero-touch provisioning
- D. Configuration drift prevention
- E. Least privilege network access
- F. Central policy management
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
To increase overall security after a recent breach, implementing least privilege network access and central policy management are effective strategies.
Least Privilege Network Access: This principle ensures that users and devices are granted only the access necessary to perform their functions, minimizing the potential for unauthorized access or breaches. By limiting permissions, the risk of an attacker gaining access to critical parts of the network is reduced.
Central Policy Management: Centralized management of security policies allows for consistent and streamlined implementation of security measures across the entire network. This helps in quickly responding to security incidents, ensuring compliance with security protocols, and reducing the chances of misconfigurations.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses network security principles, including least privilege and policy management.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing security policies and access controls.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers strategies for enhancing network security and managing policies effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 256
An employee has a new laptop and reports slow performance when using the wireless network. Switch firmware was updated the previous night. A network administrator logs in to the switch and sees the following statistics on the switch interface for that employee:
98469 packets input, 1681937 bytes, 0 no buffer
Received 1548 broadcasts (25285 multicasts)
65335 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles
11546 input errors, 5 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
22781 packets output, 858040 bytes, 0 underruns
0 output errors, 89920 collisions, 0 interface resets
0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred
0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier
0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. Multicast is not configured correctly on the switch.
- B. The switchport bandwidth needs to be increased.
- C. The patch cord from the wall jack is faulty.
- D. The NIC is set to half duplex.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A large number of collisions and input errors typically indicates a duplex mismatch, such as when one device is set to full duplex and the other to half duplex. This leads to communication issues and poor performance. The document explains:
"Collisions and input errors are clear signs of duplex mismatches... typically caused when one device operates in half duplex while the other is in full duplex, causing performance and connectivity issues."
NEW QUESTION # 257
......
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